Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 04:20
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Who are the IT boys of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th generation in K-pop?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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There's no rule.